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Pharmacy and Pharmacology: free VTNE practice questions

Try each question, then open the answer. The explanations cover why the right answer is right and why the others aren’t, and every answer shows the textbook it came from and where to find it.

Pharmacy and Pharmacology is 20 of the VTNE’s 150 scored items (13% of the exam). The skills this domain tests

Item count: AAVSB 2023 Veterinary Technician National Examination Content Outline, approved by the AAVSB Board of Directors, March 2023. Retrieved 2026-08-15.

Question 1

VT-PHA-013

A 9-year-old Cavalier King Charles Spaniel with Stage B2 myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD) and echocardiographic evidence of cardiomegaly is prescribed pimobendan. The owner asks how this medication differs from the digoxin their previous dog received for heart failure. What is the key mechanistic difference between pimobendan and digoxin in how they increase cardiac contractility?

  1. APimobendan increases calcium release from intracellular storage sites, while digoxin increases calcium binding to contractile elements
  2. BPimobendan increases calcium binding to contractile elements, while digoxin increases calcium release from intracellular storage sites
  3. CPimobendan inhibits the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump, while digoxin directly stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors
  4. DPimobendan is a pure vasodilator with no inotropic effect, while digoxin is a pure positive inotrope with no vasodilator effect
Show answer

The answer is B.

Why B is right

  • Pimobendan increases the sensitivity of the contractile elements (troponin C) to calcium, enhancing calcium binding.
  • Digoxin inhibits the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump; intracellular sodium accumulates and displaces calcium from its storage sites.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: reverses the mechanisms.
  • C: misattributes digoxin's mechanism to pimobendan.
  • D: false; pimobendan has both inotropic and vasodilator effects.
Full explanation

Pimobendan is an inodilator, meaning it acts as both a positive inotrope and a vasodilator. Its positive inotropic mechanism is unique: unlike catecholamines (dobutamine) or digoxin, pimobendan does not increase the release of calcium from intracellular storage sites. Instead, it increases the sensitivity of the contractile elements (troponin C) to calcium, enhancing calcium binding and producing a more effective contraction without raising intracellular calcium concentration. Digoxin, by contrast, inhibits the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump, causing intracellular sodium to accumulate, which displaces calcium from its storage sites and increases calcium availability for contraction. This elevated intracellular calcium is thought to contribute to digoxin's arrhythmogenic risk and reduced long-term survival compared to pimobendan.

Option A reverses the mechanisms.

Option C misattributes digoxin's mechanism to pimobendan and invents a beta-1 mechanism for digoxin.

Option D is false because pimobendan has both inotropic and vasodilator effects.

Bill's Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics for Veterinary Technicians

Anderson, 5th edition — chapter 5, page 122

Question 2

VT-PHA-003

The veterinarian orders 500 mL of a 2.5% dextrose solution. The only dextrose on the shelf is a 50% stock solution. Using the dilution equation C1V1 = C2V2, how many milliliters of the 50% stock must be added?

  1. A12.5 mL
  2. B25 mL
  3. C50 mL
  4. D250 mL
Show answer

The answer is B.

Worked steps

  1. C1, the 50% stock.50 g per 100 mL = 500 mg/mL
  2. C2, the 2.5% dextrose.2.5 g per 100 mL = 25 mg/mL
  3. C2 x V2.25 x 500 = 12,500
  4. V1, the stock to add.12,500 / 500 = 25 mL

Why B is right

  • Convert both percentages into the same units before using the equation.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: 12.5 mL is the 12.5 grams of dextrose the bag needs, reported as milliliters of stock.
  • C: 50 mL is the right method applied to a 1000 mL bag instead of a 500 mL bag.
  • D: 250 mL comes from converting the 2.5% correctly to 25 mg/mL but leaving the 50% stock as 50 mg/mL, a tenfold error in one term only.
Full explanation

Convert both percentages into the same units before touching the equation - that single step is where most of these problems are won or lost. A percentage solution is grams per 100 mL, so 50% dextrose is 50 g per 100 mL, which is 500 mg/mL, and 2.5% dextrose is 2.5 g per 100 mL, which is 25 mg/mL. Now C1 = 500 mg/mL, C2 = 25 mg/mL and V2 = 500 mL. Solving (500 mg/mL)(V1) = (25 mg/mL)(500 mL) gives V1 = 12,500 / 500 = 25 mL of the 50% stock. Each wrong option is a specific and recognizable slip. 12.5 mL is the mass of dextrose the bag actually needs - 2.5 g per 100 mL times five gives 12.5 grams - reported as though grams of drug and milliliters of stock were the same number; they are not, because the stock solution is only half drug by weight. 250 mL comes from converting the 2.5% correctly to 25 mg/mL but leaving the 50% stock as 50 mg/mL, a tenfold error in one term only. 50 mL is the right method applied to a 1000 mL bag instead of a 500 mL bag. One practical point beyond the arithmetic: to end up with an exact 2.5% solution you would remove 25 mL of fluid from the bag before adding the 25 mL of stock. Many practices skip that step as long as the volume added is under 10% of the bag volume, so find out what the veterinarian you work with prefers.

Bill's Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics for Veterinary Technicians

Anderson, 5th edition — chapter 2, page 33

Question 3

VT-PHA-078

A dog is being treated for a skin infection. The veterinarian says she wants a penicillin from the penicillinase-resistant (beta-lactamase-resistant) subgroup rather than an ordinary one, and asks the technician to pull it from the shelf. Which of the drugs the practice stocks belongs to that subgroup?

  1. AAmoxicillin
  2. BTicarcillin
  3. COxacillin
  4. DPenicillin G
Show answer

The answer is C.

Why C is right

  • The penicillinase-resistant, or beta-lactamase-resistant, penicillins are cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, oxacillin, and methicillin.
  • So oxacillin is the drug being asked for.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: amoxicillin is a broad-spectrum aminopenicillin; breadth of spectrum is not resistance to the enzyme.
  • B: ticarcillin is an extended-spectrum penicillin; that is about coverage, not the enzyme.
  • D: penicillin G is the original natural penicillin, the plain drug the veterinarian ruled out.
Full explanation

The penicillins are usually recognizable by the -cillin ending on the generic name, and they are also called beta-lactam antibiotics after a ring-like structure in their chemical makeup. The cephalosporins are the other major group built on that same beta-lactam ring. Within the penicillins, the drugs used in veterinary medicine fall into four named subgroups, and knowing which subgroup a drug sits in is what this order is really asking for. The natural penicillin is penicillin G. The broad-spectrum aminopenicillins are ampicillin and amoxicillin. The penicillinase-resistant, or beta-lactamase-resistant, penicillins - named for resisting that enzyme - are cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, oxacillin, and methicillin, so oxacillin is the drug being asked for. The extended-spectrum penicillins are ticarcillin, carbenicillin, and piperacillin. Amoxicillin is the tempting wrong answer because broad-spectrum sounds like the stronger, more capable choice, but breadth of spectrum and resistance to an enzyme are two different labels: an aminopenicillin covers a wider range of organisms without belonging to the enzyme-resistant group. Ticarcillin fails for the same reason one step further out - extended-spectrum is again a statement about coverage, not about the enzyme. Penicillin G is the original natural penicillin, the plain drug the veterinarian specifically ruled out.

Bill's Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics for Veterinary Technicians

Anderson, 5th edition — chapter 10, page 207

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