All free practice questions

Animal Care and Nursing: free VTNE practice questions

Try each question, then open the answer. The explanations cover why the right answer is right and why the others aren’t, and every answer shows the textbook it came from and where to find it.

Animal Care and Nursing is 30 of the VTNE’s 150 scored items (20% of the exam). The skills this domain tests

Item count: AAVSB 2023 Veterinary Technician National Examination Content Outline, approved by the AAVSB Board of Directors, March 2023. Retrieved 2026-08-15.

Question 1

VT-ANC-140

A snake is presented for repeated abnormal, incomplete sheds. A review of the enclosure and its husbandry has not explained the problem, so the veterinarian now wants to look for an endocrine cause and asks the technician which gland's hormones regulate ecdysis in snakes. Which gland is it?

  1. AThe pineal complex, whose melatonin release is tied to circadian and seasonal cycles
  2. BThe parathyroid gland, which lies just cranial to the thyroid and regulates blood calcium
  3. CThe adrenal glands, which sit ahead of the kidneys and affect sodium, potassium and carbohydrate metabolism
  4. DThe thyroid gland, which accumulates iodine and regulates growth and development
Show answer

The answer is D.

Why D is right

  • The thyroid gland accumulates iodine and regulates the hormones for growth and development.
  • In snakes specifically, shedding (ecdysis) is under thyroid hormonal control.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: the pineal complex is tied to light-driven circadian and seasonal cycles; ecdysis is not assigned to them.
  • B: regulating blood calcium is the parathyroid's whole function.
  • C: the adrenal glands affect sodium, potassium and carbohydrate metabolism, not shedding.
Full explanation

In the snake the thyroid gland sits in the throat next to the larynx and trachea, is nearly spherical, and may be a single gland or a pair depending on the individual animal. Its job is to accumulate iodine and to produce and regulate the hormones that control growth and development - and, in snakes specifically, ecdysis. Shedding is therefore under thyroid hormonal control, which is what makes the thyroid the gland to think about once husbandry has been ruled out as the reason a snake keeps shedding badly.

Option A is the trap worth understanding, because shedding is a cyclic event and the pineal complex is the cyclic gland: its epiphysis and parapineal organ act as light receptors, release melatonin, and are associated with circadian rhythms and seasonal cycles. Those are the light-driven cycles, and ecdysis is not assigned to them.

Option B catches candidates twice over - the parathyroid lies immediately cranial to the thyroid, so the two are easy to confuse on position alone, and calcium feels as though it ought to be involved in scales and skin. It is not: regulating blood calcium is the parathyroid's whole function.

Option C is chosen by candidates reasoning from metabolism generally. The adrenal glands are a bilateral pair sitting ahead of the kidneys; they produce adrenaline and noradrenaline, affect sodium, potassium and carbohydrate metabolism, and affect the androgens and reproduction. Metabolic work, but not shedding.

Exotic Animal Medicine for the Veterinary Technician

Ballard, Cheek, 4th edition — chapter 10, page 185

Question 2

VT-ANC-021

A standing adult dog is presented for increased respiratory effort. On thoracic auscultation you hear normal breath sounds over the dorsal lung fields on both sides, but no air movement at all over the ventral lung fields bilaterally. Which finding does this pattern most support?

  1. APneumothorax
  2. BPleural effusion
  3. CPulmonary edema
  4. DLower airway narrowing, as in feline asthma
Show answer

The answer is B.

Why B is right

  • In a standing animal, free fluid in the pleural space settles ventrally.
  • So pleural effusion silences the ventral lung fields while dorsal sounds remain.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: free air rises, so a pneumothorax typically abolishes sounds over the DORSAL fields, not the ventral ones.
  • C: fluid within the alveoli, as in pulmonary edema, produces inspiratory crackles, not silence.
  • D: air moving through a narrowed airway produces wheezes on inspiration, expiration or both, not silence.
Full explanation

Where the sounds are missing tells you what is displacing the lung, because gravity sorts fluid and air in opposite directions. In a standing animal, free fluid in the pleural space settles ventrally, so pleural effusion silences the ventral lung fields while dorsal sounds remain - exactly the pattern described.

Option A is the mirror image and is the distractor most candidates take: free air rises, so a pneumothorax typically abolishes sounds over the DORSAL fields, not the ventral ones.

Options C and D are wrong because neither produces silence. Fluid within the alveoli, as in pulmonary edema, produces inspiratory crackles, and air moving through a narrowed airway produces wheezes on inspiration, expiration or both. An added sound and an absent sound are different findings and point to different problems. Two things to carry into practice. First, absence of lung sounds is not exclusive to air and fluid - a space-occupying mass or lung consolidation will do it too, so the auscultation narrows the list rather than closing it. Second, normal lung sounds are audible on both inspiration and expiration but are of minimal intensity, and their loudness varies with body condition: louder in a thin patient, quieter in an obese or heavily muscled one. That is why the record must state whether an abnormality was heard on inspiration or expiration and in which lung fields, rather than simply noting that the chest sounded abnormal.

McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians and Nurses

Samples, Allen, 11th edition — chapter 7, page 216

Question 3

VT-ANC-055

A hospitalized dog has a well-placed over-the-needle catheter in the left cephalic vein. The veterinarian orders a continuous infusion of a solution with an osmolality of about 900 mOsm/L. What should the technician do?

  1. ARun it through the existing cephalic catheter at a reduced rate, since a slower infusion is less irritating to the vein
  2. BRequest placement of a central line (a jugular catheter or a PICC) and give the solution through it
  3. CPlace a second peripheral catheter in the other forelimb and split the infusion between the two veins
  4. DReplace the cephalic catheter with a winged (butterfly) catheter, which is less traumatic to the vessel
Show answer

The answer is B.

Why B is right

  • 600 mOsm or less: safe through a peripheral vein.
  • Above 600 mOsm: a central line, where high blood flow dilutes the solution almost immediately.
  • The central line is usually placed in the jugular vein; a PICC, from a saphenous vein into the caudal vena cava, is also a central line.
  • 900 mOsm/L is well over the line, so ask for a central line.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: a slower rate does not change the osmolality reaching the vein.
  • C: two veins each getting a hyperosmolar solution is two damaged veins.
  • D: a winged catheter's needle stays in the vein, easily punctures the wall and leaks fluid into the subcutaneous space.
Full explanation

Osmolality decides where an infusion may go. Medications and fluids with an osmolality of 600 mOsm or less may be safely given through a peripheral vein; anything above that threshold needs a central line, where the high blood flow of a central vessel dilutes the solution almost immediately. The central line is usually placed in the jugular vein; a PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter), placed in the lateral or medial saphenous vein and advanced into the caudal vena cava, is also a central line and can be used for the same hyperosmolar solutions. A 900 mOsm/L solution is well over the line, so the correct action is to ask for a central line rather than to improvise with the peripheral catheter already in place. A jugular central line also buys three other things worth knowing: it permits measurement of central venous pressure, it makes frequent blood sampling easy, and it is required for total parenteral nutrition. It is likewise the route for constant-rate infusions of drugs known to cause phlebitis, such as diazepam, pentobarbital and mannitol.

Option A is the most tempting answer because slowing an infusion genuinely does help with some irritants, but it does not change the osmolality of the fluid actually contacting the endothelium - the peripheral vein sees a 900 mOsm/L solution whether it arrives fast or slow.

Option C fails for the same reason: two veins each receiving a hyperosmolar solution is two damaged veins rather than one.

Option D moves in the wrong direction entirely. A winged or butterfly catheter is a short-term device for animals that are not moving around, suitable for blood collection or nonirritating medications; because its sharp needle stays indwelling, it easily punctures the vessel wall and leaks fluid into the subcutaneous space, which is the last thing wanted with a hyperosmolar infusion.

McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians and Nurses

Samples, Allen, 11th edition — chapter 17, page 508

Question 4

VT-ANC-008

Following the AAFP Feline Vaccine Advisory Panel site recommendations, where should the feline rabies vaccine be administered?

  1. ASubcutaneously in the left hind limb, distal to the stifle
  2. BSubcutaneously in the right forelimb, distal to the elbow
  3. CSubcutaneously in the interscapular region
  4. DSubcutaneously in the right hind limb, distal to the stifle
Show answer

The answer is D.

Why D is right

  • Rabies goes subcutaneously in the right hind limb distal to the stifle.
  • Each vaccine has its own limb, so if a reaction or mass appears later, the record shows which product was responsible.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: the left hind limb distal to the stifle is for FeLV or FIV.
  • B: the right front limb distal to the elbow is for FVRCP.
  • C: amputation can remove a distal limb mass completely; one interscapular cannot be excised with clean margins.
Full explanation

The AAFP scheme gives each vaccine its own limb so that if a reaction or a mass appears later, the record shows exactly which product was responsible: FVRCP goes subcutaneously in the RIGHT FRONT limb distal to the elbow, FeLV or FIV in the LEFT HIND limb distal to the stifle, RABIES in the RIGHT HIND limb distal to the stifle, and Giardia in the left front limb distal to the elbow.

Options A and B are therefore not random noise - they are the sites belonging to other vaccines, which is exactly what makes them tempting under time pressure.

Option C is the one to understand rather than merely eliminate. The reason these recommendations place vaccines DISTAL on a limb at all is that vaccine-induced sarcomas, though rare, are locally invasive; a mass on a distal limb can be removed completely by amputating that limb, whereas one in the interscapular region cannot be excised with clean margins. Two habits go with this: always record the site of administration in the medical record, and avoid administering multiple vaccines in the same area.

McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians and Nurses

Samples, Allen, 11th edition — chapter 8, page 242

Question 5

VT-ANC-001

A client is picking up an 8-week-old kitten and an 8-week-old puppy from two different breeders on the same day. She asks the technician when each animal's primary socialization period occurs so she can plan the introductions. Which answer is correct?

  1. AKitten 3 to 16 weeks; puppy 2 to 7 weeks
  2. BKitten and puppy both 6 to 14 weeks
  3. CKitten 2 to 7 weeks; puppy 3 to 16 weeks
  4. DKitten 4 to 12 weeks; puppy 8 to 20 weeks
Show answer

The answer is C.

Why C is right

  • Kittens: about 2 to 7 weeks.
  • Puppies: about 3 to 16 weeks.
  • The kitten's window has already closed by the usual adoption age; the puppy's runs well into its first weeks with the new family.

Why the others are wrong

  • A: reverses the two species.
Full explanation

The primary socialization period is the window of mental flexibility in which an animal learns who its social partners are, how to navigate social interaction, and what in the environment is safe versus dangerous. Kittens have that window from about 2 to 7 weeks of age; puppies have it from about 3 to 16 weeks. The practical consequence is the real point: a kitten's socialization period has ALREADY CLOSED by the usual age of adoption, so the adopting family gets almost no opportunity to shape it and the breeder or foster home carries that responsibility. A puppy's window extends well into its first weeks with the new family, so the client can still arrange planned, pleasant exposures to the people, sounds, surfaces, textures and events of the dog's projected adult life.

Option A simply reverses the two species, and it is the most tempting wrong answer because the longer window intuitively feels like it should belong to the smaller, faster-maturing animal - it does not. Animals keep adding to their social knowledge for life, but the brain is most elastic during this early window, which is why well-planned exposure during it acts as a form of behavioral vaccination against later fear and stress.

McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians and Nurses

Samples, Allen, 11th edition — chapter 5, page 129

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